http://www.thestudentroom.co.uk/attachment...47&d=1333538964

If we look at this diagram we can see that the emf is zero across the ends of the coil for the entire time the magnet is in the tube.
Having never performed the experiment with a coil (please DON'T talk about tubes as the situation is entirely different) I don't know if I will get magnetic breaking effect.
If there is no magnetic breaking then I understand....
If there is magnetic breaking how is this possible. If the emf is zero, the current is zero (by definition). If we have no current we have no magnetic field produced by the wire to oppose the falling magnet.

Could someone please tell me which situation is correct (do we get magnetic breaking or do we not get magnetic breaking) and if there is magnetic breaking could they please explain why?